Yes, I’m doing exactly that, just as described in the law and in the URL I quoted earlier:
First degree murder involves a premeditated killing. In other words, the killer made a plan to kill the victim and then carried that plan out. Second degree murder does not require premeditation, however. Instead, there are three typical situations that can constitute second degree murder:
A killing done impulsively without premeditation, but with malice aforethought
A killing that results from an act intended to cause serious bodily harm
A killing that results from an act that demonstrates the perpetrators depraved indifference to human life
http://criminal.findlaw.com/criminal-charges/second-degree-murder-overview.html
Anyway, back to us: it’s not matter for the Oxford of being “concerned about legal terms”.
It seems to me quite obvious that everybody, in natural language, would consider a killing without premeditation (being “premeditation” defined as above) as a MURDER.
You can obviously argue that it depends on the definition that the Oxford gives for premeditation, which could be different from the legal definition of the term, and mayb different from the public perception of the meaning of premeditation…
But, in that case, it would be my turn to roll my eyes…
Come, on… What do YOU think? Is killing somebody with malice but no planning a murder, or not?
If your answer is “NO”, well, I’d be surprised.
If your answer is “YES”, well, ladies and gentlemen, we do have an agreement.
And, if logic can be applied here, we both disagree with the Oxford Dictionary…